OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 1
1) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed.
A. None of these answers
2) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes?
A. Make-to-stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of finished goods
B. Make-to-stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have enough
C. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes.
D. A and B
3) According to your text, the most common process metric is:
A. Throughput time
4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is:
B. Assembly line
D. Job Shop
5) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is?
A. Assembly line
B. Group technology cell
C. Batch Shop
D. Job Shop
6) The major decision variables in equipment selection are:
B. Labor requirements
D. Both A and B
7) In which phase of new-product design process are considerations to target market, desired level of performance, investment requirements and financial impact made:
A. pilot manufacturing phase
B. preliminary process design
C. detailed engineering
D. concept development and product planning
8) Which of the following statements is true about value analysis/value engineering (VA/VE)?
A. The purpose of VA/VE is to simplify products and processes.
B. The objective of VA/VE is to achieve equivalent or better performance at a lower cost.
C. VA is performed before the production stage, while VE deals with products already in production.
D. both A and B
9) Quality Function Deployment
A. is a tool for translating customer requirements into concrete operating and engineering goals.
B. facilitates inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and manufacturing.
C. provides a better understanding and focus on process characteristics that require improvements.
D. A and B
10) Which of the following is not a dimension of design quality?
11) The category given the maximum point value in the Baldrige award is:
A. Process management
B. Business results
C. Customer and market focus
D. Strategic planning
12) Testing is an example of:
A. External failure costs
B. Internal failure costs
C. Prevention costs
D. Appraisal costs
13) Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic economic-order quantity model?
A. quantity discounts are available
B. ordering or setup costs are constant
C. lead time is constant
D. annual demand is constant and known
14) Counting items to ensure an order is correct, is an example of:
A. stockout cost
B. carrying cost
C. ordering cost
D. Setup cost
15) Independent demand is:
A. inventory that is independent of any known rules of demand and supply
B. demand that is related to the demand for another item
C. demand determined by the marketplace that requires forecasting
D. inventory whose demand comes from independent suppliers
16) A _________ approach actually schedules in detail each resource using the setup and runtime required for each order.
A. Finite loading
B. Forward scheduling
C. Backward scheduling
D. Infinite loading
17) The assignment method is appropriate in solving problems that have the following characteristics:
A. There are ‘n’ things to be distributed to ‘n’ destinations
B. Though each destination may handle all the things, the final assignment has each thing assigned to one and only one destination
C. Only one criterion should be used (minimum cost, maximum profit, for example)
D. A and C
18) Which of the following is not a principle of work-center scheduling?
A. Reschedule every day
B. Schedule jobs as strings, with process steps back to back
C. Obtain feedback each day on the jobs that are completed at each work center
D. Once started, a job should not be interrupted
19) Which of the following according to Goldratt is not a component of production cycle time?
A. Process time
B. Wait time
C. Maintenance time
D. Setup time
20) According to Goldratt and Fox, a useful performance measure to treat inventory is ______.
A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Dollar days
D. Inventory turnover
21) Goldratt’s rule of production scheduling include all but:
A. Utilization and activation of a resource is not the same thing
B. An hour saved at a non-bottleneck is a mirage
C. A process batch should be fixed both along its route and in time
D. Do not balance the capacity – balance the flow
22) Which of the following would not be considered in deciding how far to minimum-cost schedule (crash) a project?
A. Incentives for early completion
B. Indirect project costs (e.g. interest on a construction loan)
C. The normal duration times of tasks not on a critical path
D. Project overrun penalties
23) The advantages of pure project include all but:
A. Team pride, motivation, and commitments are high.
B. Decisions are made quickly.
C. A team member can work on several projects.
D. The project manager has full authority over the project.
24) The advantage(s) of the network planning models over the Gantt chart is (are) that:
A. they are easy to use and quite widely understood
B. the precedence relationships in network scheduling are explicitly shown
C. they are less costly to use
D. both A and B
25) The idea of the Value Density calculation is:
A. Matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier
B. Determining how a product should be shipped considering its weight and value
C. Finding the minimum cost carrier
D. Finding a carrier that can handle the weight
26) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Innovative products
B. Grocery products
C. High technology products
D. Custom products
27) Supply-chain response relates to the following:
A. How quickly a customer order can be filled
B. How quickly a company can react to a new competing product
C. How inexpensive the product is
D. A and B
28) Which of the following statements is not true about capacity management in operations?
A. An operations management view also emphasizes the time dimension of capacity.
B. Capacity planning itself has different meaning to individuals at different levels within the operations management hierarchy.
C. The definition of capacity, in an operations management context, makes a clear distinction between efficient and inefficient use of capacity.
D. When looking at capacity, operations managers need to look at both resource input and product outputs.
29) The best operating level is:
A. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized
B. maximum capacity
C. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized
D. the maximum point of the cost curve
30) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as:
A. Capacity used x best operating level
B. Capacity used / best operating level
C. Capacity used + best operating level
D. Capacity used – best operating level
31) Which of the following is not an element of JIT?
A. quickly changing schedule
B. Multifunction worker
C. kanan pull system
D. small-lot production
32) With regards to working with suppliers, lean systems typically require:
A. buyer inspection of goods and materials
B. multiple sources from which to purchase
C. long-term relationships and commitments
D. delivery of large lots at frequent intervals
33) Which of the following is NOT one of the more successful applications of lean concepts in services?
A. Introduction of demand-push scheduling
B. Upgrade quality
C. Upgrade housekeeping
D. Organize problem-solving groups
34) Which of the following would not be classified as a component of demand?
A. Causal variation
35) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting?
A. Time series methods are useful for long-range forecasts when the demand pattern is erratic
B. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-based components such as daily, weekly, etc.
C. Agent liability. Time series analysis tries to understand the system underlying and surrounding the item being forecast.
D. Time series analysis is based on the idea that the history of occurrences over time can be used to predict the future.
36) Which of the following would not be classified as a time-series technique?
A. Regression model
B. Box Jenkins technique
C. Exponential smoothing
D. Simple moving average
37) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy?
A. All of the above could describe the strategy, depending on the organization.
B. The firm produces exactly what is needed every month.
C. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts production to another level and produces at that level for several more months.
D. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deals with the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime.
38) One option for altering the pattern of demand is:
B. carrying inventory
C. using overtime
D. hiring employees
39) Aggregate planners balance:
A. supply and inventories
B. demand and capacity
C. demand and inventories
D. demand and costs
40) Which of the following is not an advantage of MRP?
A. MRP is flexible – easy to veer away from the schedule if need arises
B. Reduced idle time
C. Reduced inventory
D. Reduced sales price
41) Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements?
A. gross requirements – planned order releases
B. gross requirements – on-hand – planned order receipts
C. gross requirements – on-hand + planned order receipts
D. gross requirements – planned order receipts
42) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item?
A. Capacity planning
B. Master production schedule
C. Bills of material
D. Inventory records file
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