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Guide Last Updated: October 11, 2015
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OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 2

OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 2


1) According to your text, the most common process metric is:

A. Utilization
B. Productivity
C. Efficiency
D. Throughput time

2) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed.
A. Starving
B. Buffering
C. Blocking
D. None of these answers

3) The average time between completion of units is commonly known as:
A. Cycle time
B. Throughput time
C. Operation time
D. Run time

4) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major process flow structure?
A. Assembly Line
B. Job Shop
C. Batch
D. Project

5) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is?
A. Group technology cell
B. Job Shop
C. Batch Shop
D. Assembly line

6) The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, and steel is:
A. Assembly Line
B. Job Shop
C. Batch
D. Continuous Flow

7) When evaluating a new product development project using net present value analysis, which of the following will make the project more attractive?
A. Delaying the start of the project
B. Making the project run over a longer period of time
C. Improving (bringing forward) the date when revenue will begin
D. A and B

8) The most important performance dimension for product development projects is:
A. Quality
B. Time-to-market
C. Productivity
D. Product flexibility

9) In which phase of new-product design process are considerations to target market, desired level of performance, investment requirements and financial impact made:
A. preliminary process design
B. concept development and product planning
C. detailed engineering
D. pilot manufacturing phase

10) An example of prevention quality cost is:
A. Train personnel
B. Inspection
C. Testing
D. Rework

11) Testing is an example of:
A. Internal failure costs
B. External failure costs
C. Prevention costs
D. Appraisal costs

12) Which of the following is not a dimension of design quality?
A. Serviceability
B. Customization
C. Durability
D. Features

13) The basic difference between P and Q systems is:
A. P models favor more expensive items
B. P model is more appropriate for important items such as critical repair parts
C. Q models are time triggered while P models are event triggered
D. Q models are event triggered while P models are time triggered

14) Independent demand is:
A. demand that is related to the demand for another item
B. demand determined by the marketplace that requires forecasting
C. inventory that is independent of any known rules of demand and supply
D. inventory whose demand comes from independent suppliers

15) Which of the following statements is true about the Q-system?
A. It does not have an EOQ, since the quantity varies according to demand.
B. The order interval is fixed not the order quantity.
C. The system is completely determined by the two parameters, Q and R.
D. It does not have a reorder point but rather a target inventory.

16) Which of the following is not a principle of work-center scheduling?
A. Schedule jobs as strings, with process steps back to back
B. Obtain feedback each day on the jobs that are completed at each work center
C. Reschedule every day
D. Once started, a job should not be interrupted

17) The assignment method is appropriate in solving problems that have the following characteristics:
A. There are ‘n’ things to be distributed to ‘n’ destinations
B. Though each destination may handle all the things, the final assignment has each thing assigned to one and only one destination
C. Only one criterion should be used (minimum cost, maximum profit, for example)
D. A and C

18) The objectives of work-center scheduling include(s):
A. To meet due dates
B. To minimize lead times
C. To minimize finish goods inventory
D. A and B

19) According to Goldratt and Fox, a useful performance measure to treat inventory is ______.
A. Quick ratio
B. Dollar days
C. Current ratio
D. Inventory turnover

20) Which of the following according to Goldratt is not a component of production cycle time?
A. Wait time
B. Maintenance time
C. Process time
D. Setup time

21) The measures of the firm’s ability to make money according to Goldratt include:
A. Net profit
B. Return on assets
C. Cash flow
D. A and C

22) The advantage(s) of the network planning models over the Gantt chart is (are) that:
A. they are easy to use and quite widely understood
B. the precedence relationships in network scheduling are explicitly shown
C. they are less costly to use
D. both A and B

23) “Slack” refers to the difference between:
A. observed and predicted times
B. optimistic and pessimistic times
C. finish and start times
D. latest and earliest times

24) Which of the following is not a typical project milestone?
A. Training of project members
B. Completed testing of the prototype
C. Production of a prototype
D. Completion of design

25) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Grocery products
B. High technology products
C. Innovative products
D. Custom products

26) Supply-chain response relates to the following:
A. How quickly a customer order can be filled
B. How quickly a company can react to a new competing product
C. How inexpensive the product is
D. A and B

27) Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
A. Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
B. A 2 for 1 price promotion
C. An “everyday” low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
D. Price promotions that expire on a specific date

28) The steps to determining capacity requirements include:
A. Using decision trees to evaluate capacity alternatives
B. Calculating equipment and labor requirements to meet product line forecasts
C. Projecting labor and equipment availabilities over the planning horizon
D. B and C

29) Which of the following statements is not true about capacity management in operations?
A. Capacity planning itself has different meaning to individuals at different levels within the operations management hierarchy.
B. The definition of capacity, in an operations management context, makes a clear distinction between efficient and inefficient use of capacity.
C. An operations management view also emphasizes the time dimension of capacity.
D. When looking at capacity, operations managers need to look at both resource input and product outputs.

30) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as:
A. Capacity used / best operating level
B. Capacity used + best operating level
C. Capacity used x best operating level
D. Capacity used – best operating level

31) A kanban card is used to signal that:
A. a machine has broken down
B. work is authorized to replenish a downstream station
C. a worker has run out of parts
D. work is ready to be moved to the next station

32) Which of the following is not an element of JIT?
A. Multifunction worker
B. kanan pull system
C. quickly changing schedule
D. small-lot production

33) Which of the following is not true about JIT systems?
A. JIT is typically applied to repetitive manufacturing.
B. The goal of JIT is to drive all inventory queues to a moderate level thus minimizing inventory investment and shortening lead times.
C. Under JIT the ideal lot size is one.
D. The JIT system is based on the philosophy of eliminating waste and utilizing the full capability of the worker.

34) Which of the following would not be classified as a time-series technique?
A. Box Jenkins technique
B. Regression model
C. Exponential smoothing
D. Simple moving average

35) Which phrase most closely describes the Delphi forecasting technique?
A. group of expert’s opinions
B. test markets
C. random individual opinions
D. consumer survey

36) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand. The next forecast is 66. What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
A. 0.04
B. 0.25
C. 0.4
D. 0.02

37) Aggregate planners balance:
A. demand and capacity
B. supply and inventories
C. demand and inventories
D. demand and costs

38) Which of the following is not a cost relevant to aggregate production planning?
A. Costs associated with changes in the production rate
B. Inventory holding costs
C. Quantity discounts
D. Basic production costs

39) Production planning strategies include:
A. Chase strategy
B. Level strategy
C. Stable workforce-variable work hours
D. A, B, and C

40) Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?
A. demand pattern is random
B. objective is to meet manufacturing needs
C. lot sizing is EOQ
D. based on independent demand

41) The gross requirements of a given component part in an MRP system are determined from:
A. gross requirements of the immediate part
B. planned order releases of the immediate parents
C. net requirements of end item
D. net requirements + on-hand

42) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item?
A. Master production schedule
B. Capacity planning
C. Bills of material
D. Inventory records file