Final Exam Study Guide Image
OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 5 PaperScholar Study Aids
Guide Last Updated: September 13, 2015
Rated 4.48 stars, based on 24 votes rating


OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 5

OPS 571 Final Exam Study Guide Version 5


1) Which of the following is not a typical project milestone?
a. Completion of design
b. Production of a prototype
c. Training of project members
d. Completed testing of the prototype
e. Approval of a pilot run

2) Which of the following are organizational structures used to tie the project to the parent firm?
a. Pure project
b. Functional project
c. Matrix project
d. Only A and B
e. Only B and C
f. A, B, and C

3) The advantages of pure project include all but:
a. The project manager has full authority over the project.
b. Team pride, motivation, and commitments are high.
c. Decisions are made quickly.
d. A team member can work on several projects.
e. Team members report to one boss.

4) The advantage(s) of the network planning models over the Gantt chart is (are) that:
a. they are easy to use and quite widely understood
b. the precedence relationships in network scheduling are explicitly shown
c. they are less costly to use
d. both A and B
e. both B and C

5) “Slack” refers to the difference between:
a. latest and earliest times
b. finish and start times
c. observed and predicted times
d. optimistic and pessimistic times
e. none of the above

6) Which of the following would not be considered in deciding how far to minimum-cost schedule (crash) a project?
a. Project overrun penalties
b. Incentives for early completion
c. Indirect project costs (e.g. interest on a construction loan)
d. The normal duration times of tasks not on a critical path
e. How far individual tasks can be crashed

7) Which statement is true about Project Scheduling?
a. Slack is defined as the difference between the earliest start and the latest finish of a task.
b. The critical path seldom has a slack time of zero.
c. Project crashing is an effort to maximize project duration.
d. The earliest finish for a task is equal to the early start plus the task duration.
e. None of the above statements are true.

8) Refer To: 0301. What is the expected time needed to complete activity A?
a. 8 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 12 minutes
d. 11 minutes
e. None of the above

9) Refer To: 0301. Which of the following is the standard deviation of this activity A?
a. sqrt (4/36)
b. sqrt (16/36)
c. sqrt (10/36)
d. 4/36
e. 16/36

10) In which phase of new-product design process are considerations to target market, desired level of performance, investment requirements and financial impact made:
a. concept development and product planning
b. detailed engineering
c. preliminary process design
d. pilot manufacturing phase
e. ramp-up

11) When marketing, engineering, and operations simultaneously develop a process (cross-functional integration), this approach is known as __________ ________________.
a. sequential process
b. traditional approach
c. concurrent engineering
d. both A and B
e. none of the above

12) Quality Function Deployment
a. is a tool for translating customer requirements into concrete operating and engineering goals.
b. facilitates inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and manufacturing.
c. provides a better understanding and focus on process characteristics that require improvements.
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C

13) Which of the following statements is true about value analysis/value engineering (VA/VE)?
a. The purpose of VA/VE is to simplify products and processes.
b. The objective of VA/VE is to achieve equivalent or better performance at a lower cost.
c. VA is performed before the production stage, while VE deals with products already in production.
d. both A and B
e. A, B, and C

14) The most important performance dimension for product development projects is:
a. Time-to-market
b. Productivity
c. Quality
d. Product flexibility
e. Product reliability
f. A, B, and C

15) When evaluating a new product development project using net present value analysis, which of the following will make the project more attractive?
a. Delaying the start of the project
b. Making the project run over a longer period of time
c. Improving (bringing forward) the date when revenue will begin
d. A and B
e. None of the above are correct.

16) Which of the following are parts of IDEO’s product design process?
a. Rapid prototyping
b. Using project milestones
c. Brainstorming
d. Benchmarking
e. A and C

17) Which of the following are characteristics of a company’s core competence?
a. It is not easy to outsource
b. It provides potential access to a variety of markets
c. It increases perceived customer benefits
d. It is hard for competitors to imitate
e. B, C and D.

18) Manufacturing is involved in what phases of the product design process?
a. Concept Development
b. Production Ramp-up
c. Initial Planning
d. Concept Development
e. A, B, C and D

19) Which of the following would not be considered an input in the airline business?
a. Ground equipment
b. Flight crew
c. Reservation personnel
d. Energy in the form of fuel
e. All the above are inputs

20) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed.
a. Buffering
b. Blocking
c. Starving
d. None of the above

21) The most common things that can happen when two stages are directly linked are:
a. Buffering
b. Blocking
c. Starving
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. A, B, and C

22) Processes can be characterized as:
a. Single stage or multi stage
b. Make-to-stock or make-to-order
c. Paced or non-paced
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. A, B, and C

23) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes?
a. Make-to-stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of finished goods inventory.
b. Make-to-stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have enough capacity to keep up during the peak season.
c. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes.
d. A and B
e. A and C
f. A, B, and C

24) According to your text, the most common process metric is:
a. Productivity
b. Efficiency
c. Utilization
d. Throughput time
e. Cycle time

25) The average time between completion of units is commonly known as:
a. Throughput time
b. Operation time
c. Cycle time
d. Run time
e. None of the above

26) In practice, often _______ time is not included in the utilization of the process.
a. Run time
b. Machine time
c. Setup time
d. A and B
e. B and C

27) Throughput time cannot be reduced in a process by:
a. Reducing the utilization of bottleneck equipment
b. Performing activates using a serial approach
c. Changing the sequence of activities
d. Reducing interruptions
e. All of the above are ways by which throughput time can be reduced

28) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major process flow structure?
a. Job Shop
b. Batch
c. Assembly Line
d. Project
e. Continuous Flow

29) The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, and steel is:
a. Job Shop
b. Batch
c. Assembly Line
d. Project
e. Continuous Flow

30) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is:
a. Job Shop
b. Batch
c. Assembly Line
d. Project
e. Continuous Flow

31) An example of a business/industry that uses batch flow process structure is:
a. Commercial printer
b. Heavy equipment
c. Automobile assembly
d. Sugar refinery
e. French restaurant

32) The major decision variables in equipment selection are:
a. Flexibility
b. Labor requirements
c. Manufacturer
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
f. Both A, B and C

33) A major process flow structure is the fabrication shop.
a. True
b. False

34) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is?
a. Job shop
b. Batch shop
c. Group technology cell
d. Assembly line
e. Continuous flow

35) A process flow diagram shows how parts are put together to make a product.
a. True
b. False

36) A break even point indicates which of the following:
a. The point where profit is maximized
b. The point where cost is minimized
c. The point where we are indifferent between two options
d. The point where we are most efficient
e. All of the above

37) Generalizations that can be made pertaining to the nature of services include:
a. Everyone is an expert on services
b. Quality of work is quality of service
c. High-contact services are experienced
d. A and B
e. A and C
f. A, B, and C
The correct answer is e

38) Home repair services are an example of:
a. Facilities-based services
b. Field-based services
c. Internal services
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

39) The service triangle includes:
a. The service strategy
b. Employees
c. Management
d. Support systems
e. A, B, and C
f. A, B, and D
g. All of the above

40) The ______ the percentage of contact time between the service system and the customer, the ________ the degree of interaction between the two during the production process.
a. Greater, lesser
b. Lesser, greater
c. Greater, greater
d. None of the above

41) The item “most” emphasized by the survey respondents of the 1997 survey conducted by Roth, Chase, and Voss was:
a. Accessibility
b. Openness to employees
c. Leadership
d. Listening to the customer
e. Service tangibles

42) Which of the following is not an alternative identified in the service-system design matrix?
a. Mail contact
b. Face-to-face loose specs
c. Face-to-face tight specs
d. Phone contact
e. All of the above are identified